Clause 11: Enactment
Analysis
Clause 13 specifies that the following text containing Sections 1 to 146, as well as Schedules 1 and 2, is enacted as An Act respecting the protection of critical cyber systems in the federally regulated sector (CCSPA), and provides the preamble.
The preamble specifies what the purpose and reasoning for the CCSPA is, focusing on the responsibility of the federal government to protect Canadians, the importance of certain cyber systems in ensuring the continuity of systems and services that Canadians rely on, an acknowledgement that the national cyber security strategy committed to protecting these systems and that the federal government is committed to working with stakeholders (including provinces and territories) to protect them, all while remaining in accordance with the Privacy Act.
Section 1: Short Title
Analysis
Section 1 specifies that Sections 1 to 146, as well as Schedules 1 and 2 can be referred to as for simplicity: the Critical Cyber Systems Protection Act (CCSPA).
Section 2: Definitions
Analysis
Section 2 sets out in alphabetical order the definition of terms used in the Critical Cyber Systems Protection Act.
- Appropriate regulator
- The definition of "appropriate regulator" provides clarity regarding which regulator this Act is referring to in relation to a designated operator. Schedule 2 of this Act will identify the class of operators (designated operators) and the corresponding regulator who will be responsible for the administration and enforcement of this Act in relation to those designated operators who are part of that class.
- Bank
- The definition of "Bank" ensures that the use of this word throughout the CCSPA Bill is referring to the Bank of Canada (a regulator under this Act), and not any other bank.
- Canadian Energy Regulator
- The definition of "Canadian Energy Regulator" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to its definition / enactment under the Canadian Energy Regulator Act.
- Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission
- The definition of "Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to the definition of Commission under the Nuclear Safety and Control Act.
- Chief Executive Officer
- The definition of "Chief Executive Officer" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to its definition under the Canadian Energy Regulator Act.
- Commission
- The definition of "Commission" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to its definition under the Canadian Energy Regulator Act.
- Confidential information
- The definition of "confidential information" ensures that appropriate protection is given to any information that has been obtained under this Act in respect of a critical cyber system. This protection is necessary because of the nature of the information or of the impact that its inappropriate disclosure could have on one or more designated operator. Such information is confidential when
- (a) it concerns a vulnerability of, or the methods used to protect a critical cyber system, when the designated operator keeps the information confidential;
- (b) its disclosure could result in financial loss or gain to the designated operator, or could prejudice its competitive position; or
- (c) its disclosure could be expected to interfere with contractual or other negotiations of a designated operator.
- Critical cyber system
-
A critical cyber system (CCS) is a cyber system that underpins a vital service or a vital system. This means that the compromise of such a cyber system, by any means, could have a detrimental effect on the continuity or the security of this vital service or vital system. This includes any part of the cyber system that if compromised, would impact the cyber system's confidentiality (where information contained or processed in the cyber system is accessed without authorization), integrity (where information contained or processed in the cyber system is modified or deleted unintentionally or without authorization) or availability (where the cyber system, information contained or processed in it, cannot be accessed when necessary).
Specific elements of any CCS may vary rapidly and regularly, since technology evolves at a rapid pace; however, at any point in time, all the components of a cyber system that meet the above definition would be part of the CCS.
- Cyber security incident
- An incident, including an act, an omission or a circumstance that interferes or could interfere with the continuity or security of a vital service or vital system. An act, omission or circumstance that affects or could affect the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the critical cyber system, would also constitute a cyber security incident.
- Cyber system
- A cyber system is defined under this Act as a system of interdependent digital services, technologies, assets or facilities that form the infrastructure for the reception, transmission, processing or storing of information. This definition is designed to capture the different types of components, physical or virtual, that work together to underpin a vital service or a vital system. This definition aims at capturing current and future states of technologies that are key to vital services or systems.
- Designated operator
- The definition of "designated operator" refers to a person, partnership or unincorporated organization that belongs to any class of operators identified in Schedule 2. Designated operators will be responsible for complying with the obligations under this Act in relation to the critical cyber system that they own, control or operate.
- Governor
- The definition of "Governor" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to its definition under the Bank of Canada Act.
- Minister
- At the time of the tabling of this Act, this expression refers to the Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness. However section 4 of this Act confers the Governor in Council with the power to appoint any other federal minister to serve as the Minister for this Act.
- Regulator
- This Act lists the regulators that are responsible for enforcing and administering this Act, including:
- the Minister of Industry;
- the Minister of Transport;
- the Superintendent of Financial Institutions appointed under subsection 5(1) of the Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions Act;
- the Bank of Canada established by subsection 3(1) of the Bank of Canada Act;
- the Canadian Energy Regulator, established by section 10 of the Canadian Energy Regulator Act; and
- the Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission, established by section 8 of the Nuclear Safety and Control Act.
- Responsible minister
- This definition identifies the minister responsible for an Act that is ordinarily administered by an appropriate regulator with respect to any class of operators set out in Schedule 2 as the responsible minister. This ensures clarity when this Act is referring to the minister responsible for this Act, and other ministers who have responsibilities under this Act.
- Superintendent
- The definition of "Superintendent" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA, it corresponds to the Superintendent of Financial Institutions established under the Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions Act.
- Tribunal
- The definition of "Tribunal" ensures that, throughout the CCSPA Bill, it corresponds to Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada established under the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada Act.
- Vital service
- A service that is determined to be vital to national security or public safety under this Act and is identified in Schedule 1 of this Act.
- Vital systems
- A system that is determined to be vital to national security or public safety under this Act and is identified in Schedule 1 of this Act.
Section 3: Application
Analysis
Section 3 makes clear that this Act is binding on the Crown.
Section 4: Power to designate Minister
Analysis
Section 4 gives the Governor in Council the power to designate any federal minister to be the Minister for this Act.
If no minister is designated under section 4, the Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness is the minister responsible for this Act.
Section 5: Purpose
Analysis
The purpose of this Act is to help to protect critical cyber systems in order to support the continuity and security of services and systems that are vital to national security or the safety of Canadians.
In particular, the purpose of this Act is to encourage the protection of critical cyber systems by identifying a number of cyber security related outcomes that this regime is intended to address including,
- any cyber security risks in respect of critical cyber systems are identified and managed, including risks associated with supply chains, and the use of third party products and services;
- critical cyber systems are protected from being compromised;
- any cyber security incidents affecting, or having the potential to affect critical cyber systems are detected; and
- the impacts of cyber security incidents affecting critical cyber systems are minimized.
Section 6: Vital Services and Vital Systems
Analysis
Subsection 6(1) authorizes the Governor in Council (GIC) to identify, in Schedule 1 of this Act, any service or system that is vital to national security or public safety. The GIC may only designate services or systems that are delivered or operated as part of a "work, undertaking or business" that are within the legislative authority of Parliament. Schedule 1 is already populated with vital services and vital systems.
Subsection 6(2) authorizes the Governor in Council to amend or delete any service or system set out in Schedule 1.
Section 7: Designated Operators of Critical Cyber Systems
Analysis
Section 7 gives the Governor in Council the power to add to Schedule 2 a class of operators, along with the name of the corresponding regulator for that class, in respect of a vital service or vital system listed in Schedule 1.
Only classes containing entities that are persons, partnerships or unincorporated organizations that operate a work or carry on an undertaking or business that is within the legislative authority of Parliament can be added. This ensures that only the vital service provider or the vital system operator will be responsible for complying with this Act, and not third parties.
Section 7 also allows the Governor in Council to amend or delete a class of operators or a regulator.
Section 8: Critical cyber system — obligation of designated operator
Analysis
Section 8 ensures that a designated operator that owns, controls or operates a critical cyber system is responsible for complying with the requirements of this Act and the regulations with respect to that critical cyber system.
Upon falling within a class of operators in Schedule 2, the designated operator will be responsible for complying with this Act in relation to any components of cyber systems that are part of their critical cyber system. While this set of technologies can vary from time to time, at any point in time, the vital service or vital system would depend on a specific set of technologies which would form the CCS.
Sections 9 to 14: Establishing and maintaining a cyber security program
Analysis
Section 9 creates the obligation for designated operators to establish a cyber security program (CSP) in respect of its critical cyber systems.
Subsection 9(1) provides that the CSP must be established within 90 days after the designated operator becomes subject to the obligations under this Act, and that the CSP must include reasonable steps to, in accordance with any regulations:
- identify and manage any organizational cyber security risks, including risks associated with the designated operator's supply chain and its use of third-party products and services;
- protect its critical cyber system from being compromised;
- detect any cyber security incidents affecting, or having the potential to affect, its critical cyber systems;
- minimize the impact of cyber security incidents affecting critical cyber systems; and
- do anything that is prescribed by the regulations.
Under e), additional objectives requiring reasonable steps be taken as part of the CSP can be prescribed by regulations.
Subsection 9(2) requires the designated operator to notify its regulator as soon as its CSP has been established.
Section 10 requires the designated operator to provide its CSP to its regulator as set out in Schedule 2 (or to make the CSP available to the regulators) within 90 days after becoming subject to this Act.
It also makes clear that regulation can prescribe the manner in which the CSP must be provided. If no manner is so prescribed, then the CSP must be provided in the manner that the appropriate regulator considers appropriate.
Section 11 allows the regulator to, upon written request, extend the 90-day period to establish a cybersecurity program and/or provide it to the regulator, and gives the regulator discretion to extend this period more than once.
Section 12 requires the designated operator to implement the CSP by taking the reasonable steps included in the CSP.
The designated operator must also maintain the CSP, in order to keep it current in its capacity to identify and respond to evolving threats, changing technology, etc.
Subsection 13(1) specifies that a designated operator must conduct an annual review of its CSP beginning on the anniversary of their CSPs establishment, or on a date prescribed in regulation.
Subsection 13(2) also specifies that the designated operator must complete the review within 60 days, or within the period prescribed by the regulations if such regulation is made, and amend its program as a result of the review if needed.
Subsection 13(3) obligates the designated operator to inform its regulator of whether or not any changes were made to the program, within 30 days after completion of the review that was conducted, unless a regulation prescribes another period of time.
Subsection 14(1) requires a designated operator, within a period prescribed by the regulations, to notify its regulator of a material change in its ownership or control, or in its supply chain or in its use of third-party products, and do so without delay. This notification aims at identifying circumstances that would have an impact on the inherent risks of this operator. This Act also allows other circumstances to trigger the notification requirement, if they are included in a regulation.
Subsection 14(2) specifies that the designated operator must also inform their regulator of whether or not changes were made to the program – and if so, of the nature of those changes as a result of the changes in circumstances – and do so within 90 days after they notified their regulator.
Subsection 14(3) allows the regulator to extend the 90-day period for a designated operator who requests it, and gives the regulator discretion to extend this period more than once.
Section 15: Mitigation of Supply-chain and Third-party Risks
Analysis
Section 15 requires a designated operator who, as part of its CSP, has identified any cyber security risk associated with its supply chain or its use of third-party products and services, to take reasonable steps, including any steps prescribed by regulations, to mitigate those risks.
The mitigation of risks is understood to mean that the steps taken should reduce the likelihood of the risk materializing, or the impact on the CCS, the vital service or the vital system, of such risk materializing.
Section 16 allows a regulator to provide to Communications Security Establishment Canada (CSE) any information, including information that is confidential respecting:
- a designated operator's cyber security program or
- any steps taken by the designated operator to mitigate cyber security risk associated with its supply chain or its use of third-party products and services.
The regulator is authorised to do so for the purpose of requesting advice, guidance or services from CSE in accordance with the mandate of CSE in respect of the exercise of the regulator's powers or the performance of its duties and functions under the CCSPA.
Sections 17 to 19: Report — cyber security incident
Analysis
Section 17 requires a designated operator to, within a period prescribed by the regulations, not to exceed 72 hours, report a cyber security incident in respect of any of its critical cyber systems to the Communications Security Establishment (in accordance with the regulations), who will use the information under its existing mandate. This information is necessary for the Government of Canada to gain a better understanding of the threats to CCS, resulting in a more accurate picture of the cyber security landscape in Canada and provide more evidence in support of its protection.
Regulations will specify what must be reported, and the format for reporting; it is expected that regulations will be sector-specific so that reporting can be tailored to each sector's specific context.
Subsection 18(a) obligates the designated operator to notify its regulator in the manner prescribed by the regulations, immediately after reporting a cyber security incident.
Subsection 18(b) specifies that this notification obligation can include sending the incident report to the regulator, if the regulator requests it.
Section 19 requires CSE to give to a regulator who requests it a copy of any incident report or any portion of it that relates to a designated operator under the purview of that regulator, without delay. This is for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with the provisions of this Act and the regulations.
Sections 20 and 21: Cyber Security Directions
Analysis
Subsection 20(1) gives the Governor in Council the authority to issue, by order, a cyber security direction (CSD) to direct any designated operator, or a class of operators, to comply with any measure that is included in the CSD for the purpose of protecting the critical cyber system that the designated operator is responsible for. The Governor in Council has this authority so long as they reasonably believe that making the order is necessary to protect this critical cyber system.
Subsection 20(2) allows the Governor in Council to amend or revoke a direction in whole or in part. A CSD would apply until it is revoked, unless it contains specific application timeframes specified under subsections 21(1) or 21(2).
Subsubsection 20(3) details a list of considerations the Governor in Council must consider before making an order under subsection 20(1). This list includes considering the operational and financial impacts on designated operators, the impact on the public safety of Canadians, the impact on the delivery of vital services, and other factors that are deemed relevant.
Subsection 20(4) obligates every designated operator to comply with a direction that it is subject to.
Subsection 20(5) requires the Minister to notify the National Security and Intelligence Committee of Parliamentarians and the National Security and Intelligence Review Agency within 90 days of making an order under subsection 20(1).
Subsection 20(6) specifies for greater certainty that the Governor in Council is prohibited from ordering a designated operator to intercept private communications or radio-based telephone communications as defined under the Criminal Code.
Subsection 21(1) specifies what must be contained in a CSD. The CSD must include the name of the designated operator or the class of operators subject to the direction; it must specify the measures to be taken by the designated operator(s), along with any associated conditions; and finally, the CSD must specify the period within which those measures are to be taken.
Subsection 21(2) adds that in addition to those under 21(1)(b), the Governor in Council may include other conditions in a direction.
Subsection 22(1) provides that an order made under section 20 is exempt from the application of sections 3, 5 and 11 of the Statutory Instruments Act and as such, the order that creates a CSD does not have to be examined, registered, or published in the Canada Gazette.
Subsection 22(2) provides that a designated operator will not be found to have contravened a CSD unless it is proved that the operator had been informed of the CSD or reasonable steps had been taken to notify the operator of the CSD and its application to the operator.
Subsection 22(3) further explains that for the purpose of proving that the designated operator had been informed of a CSD, a certificate signed by the Minister or responsible minister and stating that a notice containing the order was given to designated operators likely to be affected by it is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, proof that notice was given to that designated operator.
Subsection 23(1) lists the persons or entities that are authorized to disclose or collect information, including confidential information, to and from each other, to the extent necessary, for any purpose related to the making, amending or revoking of a CSD, namely:
- the Minister;
- the responsible minister;
- the appropriate regulator;
- the Minister of Foreign Affairs;
- the Minister of National Defence;
- the Chief of the Defence Staff
- the Chief or an employee of CSE;
- the Director or an employee of the Canadian Security Intelligence Service; and
- any additional person or entity that is prescribed by regulations.
Subsection 23(2) specifies that information collected by or disclosed by a person or entity listed in section 23(1) must be treated as confidential.
Section 24 prohibits designated operators that are subject to a cyber security direction from disclosing (or allowing to be disclosed) the fact that a cyber security direction was issued, as well as the content of that direction, with the exception of what is permitted under section 25.
This prohibition ensures that, to the extent possible, the exact parameters, methods or techniques used in the protection of CCS, are not publicly known, in an effort to minimize the risk of having any threat actor use that information to compromise a CCS.
Subsection 25(1) allows a designated operator that is subject to a CSD to disclose the fact that the direction was issued, and its content, only if that disclosure is necessary for the operator to comply with the direction. For example, this could include providing details about measures that must be taken to a third party who operates part of a CCS, if that third party is the one who can take the measure.
Subsection 25(2) prohibits the person who is informed under 25(1) from further disclosing this information without the authorization of the designated operator who informed them in the first place.
Sections 26 to 29: Prohibition
Analysis
Subsection 26(1) prohibits the willful disclosure of confidential information by any person. It also prohibits any person from allowing it to be disclosed to, or to allow access to it by, any agency, body or other person, except in specific cases.
Disclosure of confidential information is authorized only if:
- the disclosure is required by law;
- the information to be disclosed is publicly available;
- the designated operator to which the information relates consents to its disclosure;
- the disclosure is necessary for any purpose related to the protection of vital services, vital systems or critical cyber systems;
- the disclosure is made in accordance with any provision of this Act; or
- the disclosure is made in accordance with the Security of Canada Information Disclosure Act.
Subsection 26(2) ensures that a person currently authorized by law to provide such information to a law enforcement agency, or to the Canadian Security Intelligence Service, is not prohibited from doing so if the provision of the information is otherwise lawful.
The goal of this enhanced protection is to minimize the concerns of private sector stakeholders who are required under this Act to share this information with the government, and address concerns with the information being widely shared.
Subsection 26(3) specifies that confidential information disclosed or allowed to be accessed under subsection 26(1) must be treated as confidential.
Subsection 27(1) allows the Minister, a responsible minister or a regulator to enter into a written agreement or arrangement with
- the government of a province;
- the government of a foreign state; or
- an international organization established by the governments of foreign states, for the exchange of information, excluding confidential information, relating to the protection of critical cyber systems.
Under such an agreement, the Minister, responsible minister or regulator could share information, other than confidential information, with any institution or agency of the government, or the international organization party to the agreement.
Subsection 27(2) permits that, while confidential information cannot be shared under 27(1), it can be disclosed to any institution or agency of the government of a province under an agreement or arrangement, but only if the Minister, responsible minister or the regulator is satisfied that the information will be treated in a confidential manner and would not be further disclosed without their express consent.
Subsection 28(1) authorizes a regulator, if necessary to protect vital systems or services, for any purpose related to this Act, to provide the Minister or the responsible minister with any information, including any confidential information, when that information is related to
that regulator's exercise of powers or the performance of its duties and functions under this Act or the regulations.
It further specifies that when the information is requested by the Minister or by a responsible minister for the same reason, the regulator must provide the information.
Subsection 28(2) specifies that any confidential information (within the meaning of this Act or any other Act of Parliament that applies to or is administered by the appropriate regulator) that is provided under subsection 28(1) must be treated as confidential.
Section 29 allows the appropriate regulator to request any information from any person, partnership or unincorporated organization, for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with any provision of this Act or the regulations, and requires that this information be provided to the regulator within the time and in the manner that the regulator specifies.
The language "person, partnership or unincorporated organization" is used to ensure that information can be requested from any person or entity who may be a designated operator. For example, this information could be necessary for the regulator to assess whether the "person, partnership or unincorporated organization" belongs to a class of designated operators.
Section 30: Record Keeping
Analysis
Subsection 30(1) specifies that a designated operator must keep records in respect of
- any steps taken to implement the designated operator's cyber security program;
- every cyber security incident that the designated operator reported under section 17;
- any steps taken by the designated operator under section 15 to mitigate any supply-chain or third-party risks;
- any measures taken by the designated operator to implement a cyber security direction; and
- any additional matters that regulations prescribe.
Subsection 30(2) further requires that the records are to be kept by the designated operator in Canada at its place of business or in a place prescribed in the regulations, and kept in the manner and for the period that is determined by the regulator, unless it is otherwise prescribed by the regulations.
Section 31: Limitation on Liability
Analysis
Subsection 31(1) ensures that any person who exercises powers or performs duties or functions under this Act is not liable for anything done or omitted to be done in good faith while they exercise those powers or perform their duties or functions.
Subsection 31(2) extends this immunity to the person who is permitted under this Act to accompany the regulator while that person is helping the regulator in the performance of its duties or functions under this Act.
Sections 32 to 39: Powers of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions
Analysis
Sections 32 to 39 provide the Superintendent of Financial Institutions with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act.
Subsection 32(1) provides the Superintendent with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 32(2) specifies the powers that the Superintendent has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 32(3) specifies that any thing removed (through subsection 32(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 32(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the Superintendent (either owner or person in charge) and any person in there must assist the Superintendent in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 32(5) allows the Superintendent to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the regulator could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 32(6) allows the Superintendent to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 33(1) notes that the Superintendent cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owner's consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 33(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 32(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 33(3) specifies that the Superintendent is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 34(1) allows the Superintendent to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 34(2) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Section 35 requires the designated operator to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the Superintendent within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 36(1) authorizes the Superintendent to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 36(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 36(3) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 37(1) specifies that any designated operator who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 37(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the Superintendent without delay.
Subsection 38(1) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the Superintendent of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 38(2) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 38(3) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the Superintendent.
Subsection 39(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the Superintendent, the designated operator must be notified of the result of, and reasoning for, that review. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 39(2) notes that if a decision by the Superintendent is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that the Superintendent has confirmed the order.
Sections 40 to 48: Powers of the Minister of Industry
Analysis
Sections 40 to 48 provide the Minister of Industry with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act.
Subsection 40(1) provides the Minister of Industry with the ability to designate a person or class of persons as inspectors for the purposes of assessing compliance and enforcement under this Act.
Subsection 40(2) specifies that each inspector designated by the Minister of Industry under this Act must be given a certification of designation and are required to produce it if asked to do so by the designated operator.
Subsection 41(1) provides the inspector with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 41(2) specifies the powers that the inspector has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 41(3) specifies that anything removed by the inspector (through subsection 41(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 41(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the inspector (either owner or person in charge) and every person in there must assist them in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 41(5) allows the inspector to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the regulator could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 41(6) allows the inspector to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 42(1) notes that the inspector cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owner's consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 42(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 41(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 42(3) specifies that the inspector is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 43(1) allows the inspector to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 43(2) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Section 44 requires the designated operator to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the Minister of Industry within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 45(1) authorizes the Minister of Industry or a designated inspector to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 45(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 45(3) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 46(1) specifies that any designated operator who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 46(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the Minister of Industry without delay.
Subsection 47(1) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the Minister of Industry of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 47(2) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 47(3) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the Minister of Industry.
Subsection 48(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the Minister of Industry, the designated operator must be informed of the result of that review and the reasoning. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 48(2) notes that if a decision by the Minister of Industry is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that the Minister of Industry has confirmed the order.
Sections 49 to 57: Powers of Bank of Canada
Analysis
Sections 49 to 57 provide the Bank of Canada with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act.
Subsection 49(1) provides the Bank of Canada with the ability to designate a person or a group of persons for the purposes of assessing compliance and enforcement under this Act.
Subsection 49(2) specifies that each person designated by the Bank of Canada under this Act must be given a certification of designation and are required to produce it if asked to do so by the designated operator.
Subsection 50(1) provides the person designated under subsection 49(1) of this Act with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 50(2) specifies the powers that the person designated under subsection 49(1) has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 50(3) specifies that anything removed by the person designated under subsection 49(1) (through subsection 50(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 50(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the person designated under subsection 49(1) (either owner or person in charge) and every person in there must assist them in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 50(5) allows the person designated under subsection 49(1) to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the regulator could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 50(6) allows the person designated under subsection 49(1) to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 51(1) notes that the person designated under subsection 49(1) cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owners consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 51(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 50(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 51(3) specifies that the person designated under subsection 49(1) is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 52(1) allows the person designated under subsection 49(1) to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 52(2) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Section 53 requires the designated operator to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the Bank of Canada within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 54(1) authorizes the Bank of Canada or a person designated under subsection 49(1) to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 54(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 54(3) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 55(1) specifies that any designated operator who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 55(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the Bank of Canada without delay.
Subsection 56(1) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the Governor of the Bank of Canada of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 56(2) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 56(3) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the Governor of the Bank of Canada.
Subsection 57(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the Governor of the Bank of Canada, the result of that review and reasoning must be notified to the designated operator. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 57(2) notes that if a decision by the Governor of the Bank of Canada is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that the Governor has confirmed the order.
Sections 58 to 66: Powers of the Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission (CNSC)
Analysis
Sections 58 to 66 provide the CNSC with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act, including the power to designate persons to exercise them.
Subsection 58(1) provides the CNSC with the ability to designate persons or groups of persons for the purposes of assessing compliance and enforcement under this Act.
Subsection 58(2) specifies that each person designated under subsection 58(1) by the CNSC under this Act must be given a certification of designation and are required to produce it if asked to do so by the designated operator.
Subsection 59(1) provides the person designated under subsection 58(1) with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 59(2) specifies the powers that the person designated under subsection 58(1) has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 59(3) specifies that anything removed by the person designated under subsection 58(1) (through subsection 59(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 59(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the person designated under subsection 58(1) (either owner or person in charge) and every person in there must assist them in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 59(5) allows the person designated under subsection 58(1) to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the regulator could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 59(6) allows the person designated under subsection 58(1) to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 60(1) notes that the person designated under subsection 58(1) cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owner's consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 60(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 59(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 60(3) specifies that the person designated under subsection 58(1) is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 61(1) allows the person designated under subsection 58(1) to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 61(2) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 61(3) specifies that the person designated under subsection 58(1) must submit any internal order to the CNSC for review, and that following this review, the CNSC must confirm, amend or revoke the internal order.
Section 62 requires the designated operator as designated under 58 (1) to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the CNSC within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 63(1) authorizes the CNSC or a person designated under subsection 58(1) to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 63(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 63(3) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 63(4) specifies that the person designated under subsection 58(1) must refer any compliance order to the CNSC for review, and that following the review, the CNSC must confirm, amend or revoke the internal order.
Subsection 64(1) specifies that any designated operator designated under 58 (1) who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 64(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the CNSC without delay.
Subsection 65(1) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the CNSC of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 65(2) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 65(3) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the CNSC.
Subsection 66(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the CNSC, the result of that review and reasoning must be notified to the designated operator. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 66(2) notes that if a decision by the CNSC is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that they have confirmed the order.
Sections 67 to 76: Powers of the Canadian Energy Regulator (CER)
Analysis
Sections 67 to 76 provide the CER and its Chief Executive Officer (CEO) with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act, including the power to designate inspection officers to exercise them.
Subsection 67(1) provides the CEO of the CER with the ability to designate inspection officers for the purposes of assessing compliance and enforcement under this Act.
Subsection 67(2) specifies that each inspection officer designated by the CEO of the CER under this Act must be given a certification of designation and are required to produce it if asked to do so by the designated operator.
Subsection 68(1) provides the inspection officer with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 68(2) specifies the powers that the inspection officer has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 68(3) specifies that anything removed by the inspection officer (through subsection 68(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 68(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the inspection officer (either owner or person in charge) and every person in that place must assist the inspector in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 68(5) allows the inspection officer to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the regulator could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 68(6) allows the inspection officer to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 69(1) notes that the inspection officer cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owner's consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 69(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 68(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 69(3) specifies that the inspection officer is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 70(1) allows the inspection officer to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 70(2) specifies that the inspection officer must report the circumstances and terms of the internal audit to the Commission of the CER.
Subsection 70(3) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Section 71 requires the designated operator to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the inspection officer within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 72(1) authorizes the inspection officer to issue a notice of noncompliance to a designated operator if they believe that there has been a contravention of the CCSPA or its regulations by a designated operator or other person.
Subsection 72(2) specifies the guidelines that an inspection officer must follow when issuing a notice of noncompliance. They must be made in writing, and must:
- state the name of the designated operator or person;
- identify the section of the CCSPA or its regulations that has been contravened;
- the relevant facts around the contravention; and
- the period available to the designated operator to respond.
Subsection 73(1) authorizes the CEO of the CER or a designated inspection officer to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 73(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 73(3) specifies that the inspection officer issuing a compliance order must notify the designated operator in writing of the terms and reasons for the order, and report it to the Commission of the CER.
Subsection 73(4) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 74(1) specifies that any designated operator who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 74(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the inspection officer without delay.
Subsection 75(1) allows the Commission of the CER to designate an individual or a group as authorized to conduct reviews under section 75.
Subsection 75(2) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the Commission of the CER or the designated reviewer (under subsection 75(1)) of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 75(3) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 75(4) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the Commission of the CER or the designated reviewer (under subsection 75(1)).
Subsection 76(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the Commission of the CER, the result of that review and reasoning must be notified to the designated operator. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 76(2) notes that if a decision by the Commission of the CER or the designated reviewer under subsection 75(1) is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that they have confirmed the order.
Sections 77 to 85: Powers of the Minister of Transport
Analysis
Sections 77 to 85 provide the Minister of Transport with powers to exercise its functions as a regulator under this Act, including the power to designate persons to exercise them.
Section 77 authorizes the Minister of Transport to delegate their powers, duties and functions under the CCSPA to any person or group of persons (with the exception of the delegation power provided under this section). The Minister can set any restrictions or limitations for this.
Subsection 78(1) provides the Minister of Transport with the power to enter a place for the purpose of verifying compliance or preventing noncompliance with this Act.
Subsection 78(2) specifies the powers that the Minister of Transport has when entering a place to ensure compliance, including:
- examining anything in the place;
- using any systems to assess information contained within them;
- preparing any documents based on that information;
- examining records, reports or data, and making copies of them;
- using any equipment in the place to copy; and
- removing any documents, record or system, or portions of them from the place to examine or copy them.
Subsection 78(3) specifies that anything removed by the Minister of Transport (through subsection 78(2)(f)) must be returned once examined or copied.
Subsection 78(4) ensures that whoever is in charge of the place that is entered by the Minister of Transport (either owner or person in charge) must assist the Minister of Transport in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 78(5) allows the Minister of Transport to be accompanied by any person they deem necessary to help them in the exercising of their powers under this section. For example, the Minister of Transport could ask a cyber security expert to help during audits under the CCSPA.
Subsection 78(6) allows the Minister of Transport to pass through any property other than a dwellinghouse in the exercising of their powers.
Subsection 79(1) notes that the Minister of Transport cannot enter a dwellinghouse without the owner's consent unless a warrant allows it.
Subsection 79(2) specifies that a justice of peace may issue a warrant to enter a dwellinghouse if they are satisfied that the following 3 conditions are met:
- it is the location where compliance must be enforced (i.e. the location required for subsection 78(1));
- entry to this location is required to enforce compliance; and
- entry has been refused, or it is reasonable to believe it will be refused.
Subsection 79(3) specifies that the Minister of Transport is not authorized to use force unless authorized by the warrant and accompanied by a peace officer.
Subsection 80(1) allows the Minister of Transport to direct a designated operator to conduct an audit on itself (an internal audit) to determine whether or not they are in compliance.
Subsection 80(2) specifies that these internal audit orders are exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Section 81 requires the designated operator to comply with the internal audit order, and to provide a report of the audit to the Minister of Industry within a specified time period. This must include whether or not the designated operator deems itself to be compliant or noncompliant with this Act or its regulations. If deemed noncompliant, they must identify what they are noncompliant with and what they are doing to remedy the noncompliance.
Subsection 82(1) authorizes the Minister of Transport to issue a compliance order, directing the designated operator to either (a) stop doing something that is or is likely to cause noncompliance, or (b) to do something necessary to meet requirements or mitigate noncompliance.
Subsection 82(2) outlines that the time and manner for a request of a review of the order must be specified in the order itself.
Subsection 82(3) ensures that the compliance order is exempt from the Statutory Instruments Act.
Subsection 83(1) specifies that any designated operator who is subject to a compliance order must comply with it.
Subsection 83(2) notes that when a designated operator is in compliance with a compliance order, they must notify the Minister of Transport without delay.
Subsection 84(1) specifies that a designated operator can request (in writing) a review by the Minister of Transport of the compliance order subject to them.
Subsection 84(2) specifies that the written request for review made by the designated operator must be made within a time and manner that is specified within the compliance order itself. It also notes that the request for review must state why a review is necessary, as well as the evidence that supports this.
Subsection 84(3) notes that the compliance order is still in effect while the review is underway unless specified by the Minister of Transport.
Subsection 85(1) notes that once the review of the compliance order is completed by the Minister of Transport, the designated operator must be notified of the result of that review and the reasoning. The compliance order could be either confirmed, amended, revoked or cancelled.
Subsection 85(2) notes that if a decision by the Minister of Transport is not completed within 90 days, it is assumed that the Minister of Transport has confirmed the order.
Sections 86 and 87: General Provisions
Analysis
Section 86 specifies that a person must not obstruct or hinder regulators, and those designated by the regulators as the case may be, from exercising their powers or performing their duties and functions under this Act – for example, during an audit.
Subsection 87 prohibits any person from:
- knowingly providing false or misleading information to any person, for any purpose under this Act; and
- knowingly providing any incident report that contains false or misleading information.
Sections 88 to 98: General Provisions of the Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime
Analysis
Section 88 clarifies the meaning of penalty as an administrative monetary penalty for a violation as imposed under sections 88 to 135.
Section 89 specifies that the purpose of a penalty is to promote compliance with this Act and not to punish.
Section 90 specifies that designated operators or other persons that contravene or fails to comply with the provisions of this Act or regulations made under it, commits a violation and is liable to a penalty of an amount determined in accordance with this Act and regulations.
Section 91 sets out the maximum amounts that can be imposed as penalties in regulations:
- sets this amount at $1,000,000 in the case of an individual.
- sets this amount, in any other case, at $15,000,000.
Regulations will ensure that the maximum penalty for any given sector is harmonized with existing penalties for that sector.
Subsection 92(1) provides that due diligence is a defence that can be relied upon in any proceeding in respect of a violation.
Subsection 92(2) specifies that common law rules and principles can be used as justification or excuse in relation to a violation of an offence under this Act to the extent that it is not inconsistent with this Act.
Section 93 specifies that when a designated operator commits a violation, any director or officer of that designated operator that directed, authorized, assented to, acquiesced in or participated in the commission of the violation is party to the violation and liable to the penalty of an amount determined in accordance with this Act and the regulations.
This applies whether or not a designated operator has been proceeded against in accordance with this Act.
Section 94 specifies a violation that is committed or continued for more than one day is considered a separate violation for each day on which it is committed or continued.
Subsection 95(1) specifies that proceeding with any act or omission as a violation precludes proceeding with it as an offence under this Act, and vice versa.
Subsection 95(2) clarifies that a violation is not an offence and that section 126 of the Criminal Code does not apply in respect of a violation.
Section 96 limits to three years after the violation becomes known to the appropriate regulator the time by which legal proceedings in respect of a violation can be commenced.
Subsection 97(1) specifies that monetary penalties and any accrued interest is a debt to the Crown and that it may be recovered in the Federal Court or any court of competent jurisdiction.
Subsection 97(2) specifies that proceedings to recover debts must not be commenced following a period of five years beginning on the day on which the debt became payable.
Subsection 97(3) clarifies that penalties are to be made payable and remitted to the Receiver General.
Subparagraph 98(1)(a) authorizes the appropriate regulator to certify an unpaid amount of any debt referred to in subsection 97(1).
Subparagraph 98(1)(b) authorizes the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada to certify unpaid debts if the appropriate regulator is the Minister of Transport.
Subsection 98(2) specifies that the registration of a certificate in the Federal Court or in another court of competent jurisdiction has the same force and effect as a judgement of that court for a debt of the amount specified in the certificate and all related registration costs.
Sections 99 to 102: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Superintendent of Financial Institutions
Analysis
Subsection 99(1) allows the Superintendent to issue a notice of violation (NOV) to a designated operator or another person if the Superintendent has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The Superintendent must also serve on the designated operator or person this NOV.
Subsection 99(2) specifies what must be included in the NOV, including the name of the designated operator or person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or person to either pay the penalty or make representations to the Superintendent with respect to the violation or the proposed penalty within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so; and,
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and representations are not made within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 99(3) specifies that, at any time before the designated operator or person pays the penalty or makes representations in respect of a NOV, or enters into a compliance agreement with the Superintendent, the Superintendent can cancel the NOV or correct an error in it.
Section 100 outlines the following factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation:
- the designated operator or person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and
- any other factors that the Superintendent considers relevant.
Subsection 101(1) specifies that if the designated operator or person pays the penalty set out in the notice of violation, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 101(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or person, including
- making representations to the Superintendent in respect of the alleged violation or the penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the Superintendent to ensure the designated operator or person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 102(1) outlines that the Superintendent must determine on a balance of probabilities, following any representations made, whether or not the designated operator or person committed the violation. The Superintendent can then decide whether to impose the same penalty as was set out in the notice, a lesser penalty, or no penalty.
Subsection 102(2) specifies that the Superintendent must put its decision in writing, along with the reason for it, and provide a copy of it to the designated operator or person.
Subsection 102(3) specifies that if the Superintendent determines that the designated operator or person committed the violation, they are liable to pay the penalty as set out in the decision.
Subsection 102(4) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the decision, the Superintendent must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 102(5) outlines that if the Superintendent decides that the designated operator or person did not commit the violation, any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation are ended.
Subsection 103(1) specifies that if the Superintendent offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the Superintendent considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 103(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person cannot make representations.
Subsection 103(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 103(4) specifies that if the Superintendent believes that a designated operator or person has complied with the compliance agreement, the Superintendent must notify the designated operator or person and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 103(5) outlines that if the Superintendent believes that the designated operator or person has not complied with the compliance order, the Superintendent must serve the designated operator or person with a notice of default and specify that
- the designated operator or person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the Superintendent can make public the designated operator or person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance with the compliance agreement and penalty.
Subsection 103(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the Superintendent must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Sections 104 to 109: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Minister of Industry
Analysis
Section 104 allows the Minister of Industry to designate persons or classes of persons that can issue notices of violation and enter into compliance agreements.
Subsection 105(1) permits the designated person to issue a notice of violation (NOV) to a designated operator or another person if the designated person has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The designated person must also serve on the designated operator or other person this notice of violation.
Subsection 105(2) specifies what must be included in the NOV, including the name of the designated operator or other person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or other person to either pay the penalty or make representations to the designated person within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so; and,
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and representations are not made within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or other person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 105(3) specifies that, at any time before the designated operator or other person pays the penalty or makes representations in respect of a NOV to the Minister of Industry, or enters into a compliance agreement with the designated person, the designated person can cancel the NOV or correct an error in it.
Section 106 outlines the following factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation:
- the designated operator or other person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and,
- any other factors that the designated person considers relevant.
Subsection 107(1) specifies that if the designated operator or other person pays the penalty set out in the notice of violation, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 107(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or other person, including
- making representations to the Minister of Industry in respect of the alleged violation or the penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the designated person to ensure the designated operator or other person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 108(1) specifies that should any representations be made, the Minister of Industry must determine, on a balance of probabilities, whether or not the designated operator or other person committed the violation, and decide whether to impose the penalty in the notice, a lesser penalty, or no penalty.
Subsection 108(2) specifies that the Minister of Industry must put its decision in writing, along with the reason for it, and provide a copy of it to the designated operator or other person.
Subsection 108(3) specifies that if the Minister of Industry determines that the designated operator or other person committed the violation, they are liable to pay the penalty as set out in the decision.
Subsection 108(4) specifies that, provided the designated operator or other person pays the penalty as set out in the decision, the Minister of Industry must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 108(5) outlines that if the Minister of Industry decides that the designated operator or other person did not commit the violation, any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation are ended.
Subsection 109(1) specifies that if the designated person offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or other person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the designated person considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 109(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person cannot make representations.
Subsection 109(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 109(4) specifies that if the designated person believes that a designated operator or other person has complied with the compliance agreement, the designated person must notify the designated operator or other person and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 109(5) outlines that if the designated person believes that the designated operator or other person has not complied with the compliance order, the designated person must serve the designated operator or other person with a notice of default and specify that
- the designated operator or other person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the Minister of Industry can make public the designated operator or other person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance with the compliance agreement and penalty.
Subsection 109(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the Minister of Industry must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Sections 110 to 114: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Bank of Canada
Analysis
Subsection 110(1) permits the Bank to issue a notice of violation (NOV) to a designated operator or another person if the Bank has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The Bank must also serve on the designated operator or person this NOV.
Subsection 110(2) specifies what must be included in the NOV, including the name of the designated operator or person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or person to either pay the penalty or make representations to the Bank with respect to the violation or the proposed penalty within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so; and,
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and representations are not made within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 110(3) specifies that, at any time before the designated operator or person pays the penalty or makes representations in respect of a NOV to the Governor, or enters into a compliance agreement with the Bank, the Bank can cancel the NOV or correct an error in it.
Section 111 outlines the following factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation:
- the designated operator or person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and,
- any other factors that the Bank considers relevant.
Subsection 112(1) specifies that if the designated operator or person pays the penalty set out in the notice of violation, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 112(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or person, including
- making representations to the Governor in respect of the alleged violation or the penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the Bank to ensure the designated operator or person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 113(1) outlines that the Governor must determine on a balance of probabilities, following any representations made, whether or not the designated operator or person committed the violation, and decide whether to impose the penalty in the notice, a lesser penalty, or no penalty.
Subsection 113(2) specifies that the Governor must put its decision in writing, along with the reason for it, and the Bank must provide a copy of it to the designated operator or person.
Subsection 113(3) specifies that if the Governor determines that the designated operator or person committed the violation, they are liable to pay the penalty as set out in the decision.
Subsection 113(4) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the decision, the Bank must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 113(5) outlines that if the Governor decides that the designated operator or person did not commit the violation, any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation are ended.
Subsection 114(1) specifies that if the Bank offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the designated person considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 114(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person cannot make representations.
Subsection 114(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 114(4) specifies that if the Bank believes that a designated operator or person has complied with the compliance agreement, the Bank must notify the designated operator or person, and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 114(5) outlines that if the Bank believes that the designated operator or person has not complied with the compliance order, the Bank must serve the designated operator or person with a notice of default and specify that
- the designated operator or person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the Bank can make public the designated operator or person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance with the compliance agreement and penalty.
Subsection 114(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the Bank must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Sections 115 to 120: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission
Analysis
Section 115 allows the Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission (CNSC) to designate persons or classes of persons that can issue notices of violation and enter into compliance agreements.
Subsection 116(1) permits the designated person to issue a notice of violation to a designated operator or another person if the designated person has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The designated person must also ensure that the designated operator or other person receives this notice of violation.
Subsection 116(2) specifies what must be included in the notice of violation, including the name of the designated operator or other person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or other person to either pay the penalty or make representations with respect to the violation or the proposed penalty within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so; and,
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and representations are not made within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or other person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 116(3) specifies that, at any time before the designated operator or other person pays the penalty or makes representations in respect of a notice of violation to the CNSC, or enters into a compliance agreement with the designated person, the designated person can cancel the notice of violation or correct an error in it.
Section 117 outlines the following factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation
- the designated operator or other person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and,
- any other factors that the designated person considers relevant.
Subsection 118(1) specifies that if the designated operator or other person pays the penalty, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 118(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or person, including
- making representations to the CNSC regarding the violation or penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the designated person to ensure the designated operator or other person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 119(1) outlines that the CNSC must determine on a balance of probabilities, following any representations made, whether or not the designated operator or person committed the violation, and decide whether to impose the penalty in the notice, a lesser penalty, or no penalty.
Subsection 119(2) specifies that the CNSC must put its decision in writing, along with the reason for it, and provide a copy of it to the designated operator or other person.
Subsection 119(3) specifies that if the CNSC determines that the designated operator or person committed the violation, they must pay the penalty as set out in the decision.
Subsection 119(4) specifies that, provided the designated operator or other person pays the penalty as set out in the decision, the CNSC must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 119(5) outlines that if the CNSC decides that the designated operator or person did not commit the violation, any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation are ended.
Subsection 120(1) specifies that if the designated person offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or other person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the designated person considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 120(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person cannot make representations.
Subsection 120(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 120(4) specifies that if the designated person believes that a designated operator or other person has complied with the compliance agreement, the designated person must notify the designated operator or other person, and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 120(5) outlines that if the designated person believes that the designated operator or other person has not complied with the compliance order, the designated person must serve the designated operator or other person with a notice of default and specify that
- the designated operator or person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the CNSC can make public the designated operator or other person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance with the compliance agreement and penalty.
Subsection 120(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or other person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the CNSC must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Sections 121 to 126: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Canadian Energy Regulator
Analysis
Section 121 allows the Chief Executive Officer to designate persons or classes of persons that can issue notices of violation and enter into compliance agreements.
Subsection 122(1) permits the designated person to issue a notice of violation to a designated operator or another person if the designated person has reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The designated person must also serve on the designated operator or other person this notice of violation.
Subsection 122(2) specifies what must be included in the notice of violation, including the name of the designated operator or person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or other person to either pay the penalty or make representations with respect to the violation or the proposed penalty to the designated person within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so; and,
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and representations are not made within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or other person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 122(3) specifies that, at any time before the designated operator or other person pays the penalty or makes representations in respect of a notice of violation to the Commission, or enters into a compliance agreement with the designated person, the designated person can cancel the notice of violation or correct an error in it.
Section 123 outlines the following factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation:
- the designated operator or other person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or other person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and,
- any other factors that the designated person considers relevant.
Subsection 124(1) specifies that if the designated operator or other person pays the penalty, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 124(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or person, including
- making representations to the Commission regarding the violation or penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the designated person to ensure the designated operator or person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 125(1) allows the Commission to designate persons or classes of persons to consider the representations made under paragraph 124(2)(a).
Subsection 125(2) outlines that the Commission or the person it designates must determine on a balance of probabilities following any representations made, whether or not the designated operator or other person committed the violation, and decide whether to impose the penalty in the notice, a lesser penalty, or no penalty.
Subsection 125(3) specifies that the Commission or the designated person must put its decision in writing, along with the reason for it, and provide a copy of it to the designated operator or other person.
Subsection 125(4) specifies that if the Commission determines that the designated operator or other person committed the violation, they must pay the penalty as set out in the decision.
Subsection 125(5) specifies that, provided the designated operator or other person pays the penalty as set out in the decision, the Commission must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 125(6) outlines that if the Commission decides that the designated operator or other person did not commit the violation, any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation are ended.
Subsection 125(7) specifies that the Federal Court has exclusive jurisdiction for judicial review of a decision made under this section by the Commission or the designated person.
Subsection 126(1) specifies that if the designated person offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or other person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the designated person considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 126(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person cannot make representations.
Subsection 126(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or other person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 126(4) specifies that if the designated person believes that a designated operator or other person has complied with the compliance agreement, the designated person must serve the designated operator or other person with a notice of default and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 126(5) outlines that if the designated person believes that the designated operator or person has not complied with the compliance order, the designated person must serve the designated operator or other person with a notice of default and specify that:
- the designated operator or person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the CER can make public the designated operator or person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance and penalty.
Subsection 126(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or other person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the CER must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Sections 127 to 134: Administrative Monetary Penalty Regime for the Minister of Transport
Analysis
Subsection 127(1) permits the Minister of Transport to issue a notice of violation to a designated operator or another person if they have reasonable grounds to believe that a violation has been made. The Minister of Transport must also serve on the designated operator or person this notice of violation.
Subsection 127(2) specifies what must be included in the notice of violation, including the name of the designated operator or person who committed the violation, the identification of the violation, and set out
- the penalty for the violation that is liable to be paid;
- the right of the designated operator or person to either pay the penalty to the Minister of Transport within 30 days (or any period longer specified), and explain how to do so;
- the right of the designated operator or person to file a request for review under paragraph 129(2)a) to the Tribunal within 30 days (or within any longer period that the Tribunal allows); and
- the fact that, if the penalty is not paid for and a request for review with the Tribunal is not filed within the time period specified in the notice, the designated operator or person will be deemed to have committed the violation and is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice.
Subsection 127(3) specifies that, at any time before a request for review is made by the designated operator (to the Tribunal), or enters into a compliance agreement with the Minister of Transport, the notice of violation can be canceled or an error in it corrected.
Section 128 outlines the factors that must be taken into account when determining the penalty for a violation:
- the designated operator or person's history of compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act or of the regulations;
- the nature and scope of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person made reasonable efforts to mitigate or reverse the effect of the violation;
- whether or not the designated operator or person gained any competitive or economic benefit from the violation;
- any other factors prescribed in regulations; and,
- any other factors that the Minister of Transport considers relevant.
Subsection 129(1) specifies that if the designated operator or person pays the penalty, they are deemed to have committed the violation, ending any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 129(2) provides alternatives to paying the penalty set out in the notice for the designated operator or person, including
- filing a request for review with the Tribunal in respect of the alleged violation or the penalty; or
- if offered, entering into a compliance agreement with the Minister of Transport to ensure the designated operator or person's compliance with the violated provision.
Subsection 130(1) specifies that the Tribunal must appoint a time and place for the review when requested, and notify the Minister of Transport and the designated operator or other person in writing.
Subsection 130(2) specifies that both the Minister of Transport and the designated operator or other person must be allowed to make representations.
Subsection 130(3) clarifies that the Minister of Transport has the burden of proving on a balance of probabilities that the designated operator or other person committed the violation.
Subsection 130(4) clarifies that the designated operator or other person that is alleged to have committed a violation is not required to give any evidence or testimony.
Subsection 130(5) specifies that confidential information may be shared during reviews to the Tribunal.
Section 131 outlines that, at the end of a review, if the Tribunal member determines that
- the designated operator or other person did not commit the violation, then the Tribunal member must inform the Minister of Transport and that designated operator or that other person, ending any other proceedings under this Act against the designated operator or other person regarding this violation; and,
- the designated operator or other person committed the violation, then the member must inform the Minister of Transport and the designated operator or other person of the determination, the amount of the penalty, and when it must be paid.
Subsection 132(1) explains that the Minister of Transport, the designated operator or another person affected by the determination may appeal the determination to the Tribunal within 30 days of the decision.
Subsection 132(2) specifies that a party who does not appear at a review hearing loses its right to appeal the determination, unless they establish that there was sufficient reason to justify their absence.
Subsection 132(3) specifies that the panel of the Tribunal that is assigned to hear an appeal may dismiss it or allow it. If the appeal is allowed, the panel can substitute its decision for the determination.
Subsection 132(4) clarifies that if the panel determines that the designated operator or the other person has committed the violation, it must immediately inform the designated operator or the other person and the Minister of Transport of this determination, and, in accordance with regulations regarding penalty amounts, of the amount determined by the panel to be payable to the Tribunal by or on behalf of the designated operator or other person, in respect of the violation and the time within which it must be paid.
Subsection 132(5) clarifies that if the panel finds that no violation has been committed, it must inform the designated operator or other person, as the case may be and the Minister of Transport of this finding immediately.
Section 133 allows the Minister of Transport to obtain from the Tribunal or the member, as the case may be, a certificate in the form established by the Governor in Council setting out the penalty required to be paid by the designated operator or other person that fails, within the time required,
- to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation or to file request for a review under paragraph 129(2)(a); or
- to pay the amount determined under subparagraph 131(b).
Subsection 134(1) specifies that if the Minister of Transport offers to enter into a compliance agreement with a designated operator or person, the agreement is subject to any terms that the Minister of Transport considers appropriate, including the reduction in whole or in part of the penalty.
Subsection 134(2) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person is no longer allowed to file a request for review under paragraph 129(2)(a).
Subsection 134(3) clarifies that if a compliance agreement is entered into, the designated operator or person is deemed to have committed the violation.
Subsection 134(4) specifies that if the Minister of Transport believes that a designated operator or person has complied with the compliance agreement, the Minister of Transport must notify the designated operator or person and end proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Subsection 134(5) outlines that if the Minister of Transport believes that the designated operator or person has not complied with the compliance agreement, the Minister of Transport must serve the designated operator or person with a notice of default and specify that
- the designated operator or person is liable to pay the penalty set out in the notice of violation, less any amount they paid under the compliance agreement; and
- the Minister of Transport can make public the designated operator or person's name, violation, scope of the noncompliance with the compliance agreement and penalty.
Subsection 134(6) specifies that, provided the designated operator or person pays the penalty as set out in the notice, the Minister of Transport must accept this as satisfaction of the penalty in respect of the violation, and end any proceedings commenced in respect of the violation.
Section 135: Regulations
Analysis
Subsection 135(1) gives the Governor in Council the power to make regulations for carrying out the purposes and provisions of this Act, including regulations:
- Respecting cyber security programs;
- Respecting conditions and criteria regarding internal audits;
- Respecting the form, manner, and period for reporting cyber security incidents and the types of incidents that must be reported;
- c.1) Respecting the period within which a notification referred to under subsection 14(1) is to be provided;
- Respecting the management of records referred to in section 30, including the collection, use, retention, disclosure and disposal of those records;
- Designating any provision of this Act or of the regulations made under this Act for the purposes of section 90;
- Classifying each violation as a minor violation, a serious violation or a very serious violation;
- Fixing the maximum penalty in respect of each class of violations;
- Defining, for the purposes of this Act, any word or expression that is used in this Act but is not defined; and,
- Prescribing anything that is to be prescribed under this Act.
Subsection 135(2) allows the Governor in Council to ensure consistency between the regulations to be established under subsection 135(1) with existing regulatory regimes, such as those established by provincial agencies.
Sections 136 to 145: Offences
Analysis
Section 136 creates regulatory offences punishable on summary conviction.
Section 136(1) specifies that every person who contravenes the sections identified in this section is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
Section 136(2) specifies that every person, partnership or unincorporated organization that contravenes Section 29 by failing to provide requested information to the appropriate regulator is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
Section 137 creates hybrid offences.
It specifies that every person who contravenes the sections identified in this section is guilty of an offence and is liable
- on summary conviction
- in the case of an individual, to a fine in an amount that is in the discretion of the court or to imprisonment for a term of not more than two years less a day, or to both, and
- in the case of a corporation, to a fine in an amount that is in the discretion of the court; or
- on conviction on indictment
- in the case of an individual, to a fine in an amount that is in the discretion of the court or to imprisonment for a term of not more than five years, or to both, and
- in the case of a corporation, to a fine in an amount that is in the discretion of the court.
Section 138 establishes that any director or officer of a designated operator that committed an offence that directed, authorized, assented to, acquiesced in or participated in the commission of the offence is party to the offence and liable on the conviction to the punishment provided for by this Act. This applies whether or not the designated operator is prosecuted for or convicted of the offence.
Section 139 specifies that if an offence under section 136 (a summary offence) or 137 (a hybrid offence) is committed or continued on more than one day, it is considered a separate offence for each day on which it is committed or continued.
Section 140 specifies that a prosecution must not be commenced in respect of an offence under this Act later than three years after the day on which the subject matter of the prosecution arose.
Section 141 protects a person, partnership or unincorporated organization from being found guilty of an offence under this Act– other than those under section 137 that is in respect of a contravention of subsection 9(1), section 15 or 26 or paragraph 87(a) or (b) — if the person can demonstrate that they exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of the offence.
Section 142 provides that in a prosecution under this Act, it is sufficient proof of an offence to establish that it was committed by an employee or agent or mandatary of the accused whether or not said person is identified or has been prosecuted for the offence.
Section 143 outlines that in any action or proceeding under this Act, any document certified by a regulator as a legitimate copy of the document given or issued under this Act is
- evidence of the original document of which it asserts to be a copy;
- evidence of the fact that the original document was made, given or issued by the authority of or provided by the person identified in it, and was made, given or issued at the time stated in the certified copy; and,
- evidence of the fact that the original document was signed, certified, attested or executed by the persons and in the manner shown in the certified copy.
Section 144 indicates that in any legal action or proceeding under this Act, any record required under this Act to be kept is, absent contrary evidence, proof of the matters stated in it against the person who made the entry or the designated operator that was required to keep the record.
Subsection 145(1) specifies that the following rules apply to judicial reviews of the issuance of a CSD (in addition to those rules associated with the general secure administrative review proceedings regime)
- if the judge determines that evidence or other information provided by the Minister is not relevant or if the Minister withdraws the evidence or other information, the decision of the judge must not be based on that evidence or other information and must return it to the Minister; and
- the judge must ensure the confidentiality of all evidence and other information that the Minister withdraws.
Subsection 145(2) clarifies that subsection (1) applies, with any necessary modifications, to both appeals of judicial decisions made in this section and any further appeal.
Subsection 145(3) defines, for this section, judge as "the Chief Justice of the Federal Court or a judge of that Court designated by the Chief Justice."
Section 146: Report to Parliament
Analysis
Section 146(1) obligates the Minister to prepare an annual report on the administration of the CCSPA for that fiscal year within 3 months of the end of the fiscal year, and to table it before each House of Parliament within the first 15 sitting days following its completion.
Subsection 146(2) specifies, for the fiscal year covered by the report, the following must be included in the report:
- the number of orders made under subsection 20(1) and the nature of the directions set out in those orders;
- the number of directions revoked under subsection 20(2);
- the number of designated operators that were subject to a direction;
- description of compliance of designated operators that partially complied with a direction;
- description of compliance of designated operators that fully complied with a direction; and
- an explanation of the necessity, proportionality, reasonableness, and utility of the directions.[2R]
Subsection 146(3) specifies that the report must also contain, among other things:
- the number of directions issued under subsection 20(1) in the immediately preceding fiscal year;
- the number of designated operators that were issued directions under subsection 20(1) in the immediately preceding fiscal year; and
- any other information relating to the immediately preceding fiscal year that the Minister considers relevant, if that information is not likely to be about an identifiable designated operator or other person.
Clauses 12 to 15: Consequential amendments
Clause 12 replaces subsection 23(1) of the Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions Act (OFSI) with the following:
Superintendent to ascertain expenses
23(1) The Superintendent shall, before December 31 in each year, ascertain the total amount of expenses incurred during the immediately preceding fiscal year for or in connection with the administration of the Bank Act, the Cooperative Credit Associations Act, the Critical Cyber Systems Protection Act, the Green Shield Canada Act, the Insurance Companies Act, the Protection of Residential Mortgage or Hypothecary Insurance Act and the Trust and Loan Companies Act.
Clause 13 amends the OSFI Act by adding the following in alphabetical order:
- Critical Cyber Systems Protection Act
- Loi sur la protection des cybersystèmes essentiels
Clause 14 replaces subsections 21(2) and (3) of the Nuclear Safety and Control Act by the following:
- Fees recoverable under any other Act of Parliament
- (1.1) The Commission may charge any fees that may be prescribed for any information, product or service that it provides under any other Act of Parliament.
- Refund of fees
- (2) The Commission may, under the prescribed circumstances, refund all or part of any fee referred to in paragraph (1)(g) or subsection (1.1).
- Expenditure of revenue from fees
- (3) The Commission may spend for its purposes the revenue from the fees it charges in the fiscal year in which the revenues are received or in the next fiscal year.
Clause 15 replaces subsection 2(3) of the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada Act by the following:
- Jurisdiction in respect of other Acts
- (3) The Tribunal also has jurisdiction in respect of reviews and appeals in connection with administrative monetary penalties provided for under sections 177 to 181 of the Canada Transportation Act, sections 127133 of the Critical Cyber Systems Protection Act, sections 43 to 55 of the International Bridges and Tunnels Act, sections 129.01 to 129.19 of the Canada Marine Act, sections 16.1 to 16.25 of the Motor Vehicle Safety Act, sections 39.1 to 39.26 of the Canadian Navigable Waters Act and sections 130.01 to 130.19 of the Marine Liability Act.
Clause 16: Coming into force
Analysis
Section 16 specifies that all provisions come into force on a day or days decided on by order of the GIC.
Schedule 1: Vital services and vital systems
Analysis
Schedule 1 includes a list of the services and systems that are vital to national security or public safety.
At the time of tabling this Act, these include:
- Telecommunications service
- Interprovincial or international pipeline and power line systems
- Nuclear energy systems
- Transportation systems that are within the legislative authority of Parliament
- Banking systems
- Clearing and settlement systems.
As per section 6 of this Act, Schedule 1 can be modified by an Order in Council adding any service or system to this list, or removing any service or system from this list.
Schedule 2: Classes of operators and corresponding regulators
Analysis
Schedule 2 is empty at the time of tabling this Act.
When the Governor in Council is ready to do so, this schedule will be populated by an Order in Council that will define classes of operators that will become subject to this Act.
This schedule will also identify the corresponding regulator (as defined in section 2) for each class of operators. The regulator becomes the appropriate regulator for all of the operators captured in that class.